[Jan 04, 2026] CompTIA SY0-701 Real Exam Questions and Answers FREE
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NEW QUESTION # 307
Which of the following actors attacking an organization is the most likely to be motivated by personal beliefs?
- A. Hacktvist
- B. Insider threat
- C. Nation-state
- D. Organized crime
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 308
A security analyst is reviewing alerts in the SIEM related to potential malicious network traffic coming from an employee's corporate laptop. The security analyst has determined that additional data about the executable running on the machine is necessary to continue the investigation. Which of the following logs should the analyst use as a data source?
- A. Endpoint
- B. Application
- C. Network
- D. IPS/IDS
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
An endpoint log is a file that contains information about the activities and events that occur on an end-user device, such as a laptop, desktop, tablet, or smartphone. Endpoint logs can provide valuable data for security analysts, such as the processes running on the device, the network connections established, the files accessed or modified, the user actions performed, and the applications installed or updated. Endpoint logs can also record the details of any executable files running on the device, such as the name, path, size, hash, signature, and permissions of the executable.
An application log is a file that contains information about the events that occur within a software application, such as errors, warnings, transactions, or performance metrics. Application logs can help developers and administrators troubleshoot issues, optimize performance, and monitor user behavior. However, application logs may not provide enough information about the executable files running on the device, especially if they are malicious or unknown.
An IPS/IDS log is a file that contains information about the network traffic that is monitored and analyzed by an intrusion prevention system (IPS) or an intrusion detection system (IDS). IPS/IDS logs can help security analysts identify and block potential attacks, such as exploit attempts, denial-of-service (DoS) attacks, or malicious scans. However, IPS/IDS logs may not provide enough information about the executable files running on the device, especially if they are encrypted, obfuscated, or use legitimate protocols.
A network log is a file that contains information about the network activity and communication that occurs between devices, such as IP addresses, ports, protocols, packets, or bytes. Network logs can help security analysts understand the network topology, traffic patterns, and bandwidth usage. However, network logs may not provide enough information about the executable files running on the device, especially if they are hidden, spoofed, or use proxy servers.
Therefore, the best log type to use as a data source for additional information about the executable running on the machine is the endpoint log, as it can provide the most relevant and detailed data about the executable file and its behavior.
References = https://www.crowdstrike.com/cybersecurity-101/observability/application-log/
https://owasp.org/www-project-proactive-controls/v3/en/c9-security-logging
NEW QUESTION # 309
A company tested and validated the effectiveness of network security appliances within the corporate network. The IDS detected a high rate of SQL injection attacks against the company's servers, and the company's perimeter firewall is at capacity. Which of the following would be the best action to maintain security and reduce the traffic to the perimeter firewall?
- A. Set the appliance to IPS mode and place it in front of the company firewall.
- B. Convert the firewall to a WAF and use IPSec tunnels to increase throughput.
- C. Configure the firewall to perform deep packet inspection and monitor TLS traffic.
- D. Set the firewall to fail open if it is overloaded with traffic and send alerts to the SIEM.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Given the scenario where an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) has detected a high rate of SQL injection attacks and the perimeter firewall is at capacity, the best action would be to set the appliance to Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) mode and place it in front of the company firewall. This approach has several benefits:
* Intrusion Prevention System (IPS): Unlike IDS, which only detects and alerts on malicious activity, IPS can actively block and prevent those activities. Placing an IPS in front of the firewall means it can filter out malicious traffic before it reaches the firewall, reducing the load on the firewall and enhancing overall security.
* Reducing Traffic Load: By blocking SQL injection attacks and other malicious traffic before it reaches the firewall, the IPS helps maintain the firewall's performance and prevents it from becoming a bottleneck.
* Enhanced Security: The IPS provides an additional layer of defense, identifying and mitigating threats in real-time.
Option B (Convert the firewall to a WAF and use IPSec tunnels) would not address the primary issue of reducing traffic to the firewall effectively. Option C (Set the firewall to fail open) would compromise security.
Option D (Deep packet inspection) could be resource-intensive and might not alleviate the firewall capacity issue effectively.
NEW QUESTION # 310
A security analyst is reviewing logs and discovers the following:
Which of the following should be used lo best mitigate this type of attack?
- A. Secure cookies
- B. Static code analysis
- C. Sandboxing
- D. Input sanitization
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 311
Which of the following threat actors is themostlikely to use large financial resources to attack critical systems located in other countries?
- A. Unskilled attacker
- B. Nation-state
- C. Hacktivist
- D. Insider
Answer: B
Explanation:
A nation-state is a threat actor that is sponsored by a government or a political entity to conduct cyberattacks against other countries or organizations. Nation-states have large financial resources, advanced technical skills, and strategic objectives that may target critical systems such as military, energy, or infrastructure. Nation-states are often motivated by espionage, sabotage, or warfare12. References = 1:
CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 542: Threat Actors - CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 - 2.1, video by Professor Messer.
NEW QUESTION # 312
A company's end users are reporting that they are unable to reach external websites. After reviewing the performance data for the DNS severs, the analyst discovers that the CPU, disk, and memory usage are minimal, but the network interface is flooded with inbound traffic. Network logs show only a small number of DNS queries sent to this server. Which of the following best describes what the security analyst is seeing?
- A. Secure DNS cryptographic downgrade
- B. Reflected denial of service
- C. On-path resource consumption
- D. Concurrent session usage
Answer: B
Explanation:
A reflected denial of service (RDoS) attack is a type of DDoS attack that uses spoofed source IP addresses to send requests to a third-party server, which then sends responses to the victim server. The attacker exploits the difference in size between the request and the response, which can amplify the amount of traffic sent to the victim server. The attacker also hides their identity by using the victim's IP address as the source. A RDoS attack can target DNS servers by sending forged DNS queries that generate large DNS responses. This can flood the network interface of the DNS server and prevent it from serving legitimate requests from end users. Reference: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 215-216 1
NEW QUESTION # 313
An organization recently updated its security policy to include the following statement:
Regular expressions are included in source code to remove special characters such as $, |, ;. &, `, and ? from variables set by forms in a web application.
Which of the following best explains the security technique the organization adopted by making this addition to the policy?
- A. Identify embedded keys
- B. Input validation
- C. Static code analysis
- D. Code debugging
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Input validation is a security technique that checks the user input for any malicious or unexpected data before processing it by the application. Input validation can prevent various types of attacks, such as injection, cross-site scripting, buffer overflow, and command execution, that exploit the vulnerabilities in the application code. Input validation can be performed on both the client-side and the server-side, using methods such as whitelisting, blacklisting, filtering, sanitizing, escaping, and encoding. By including regular expressions in the source code to remove special characters from the variables set by the forms in the web application, the organization adopted input validation as a security technique. Regular expressions are patterns that match a specific set of characters or strings, and can be used to filter out any unwanted or harmful input. Special characters, such as $, |, ;, &, `, and ?, can be used by attackers to inject commands or scripts into the application, and cause damage or data theft. By removing these characters from the input, the organization can reduce the risk of such attacks.
Identify embedded keys, code debugging, and static code analysis are not the security techniques that the organization adopted by making this addition to the policy. Identify embedded keys is a process of finding and removing any hard-coded keys or credentials from the source code, as these can pose a security risk if exposed or compromised. Code debugging is a process of finding and fixing any errors or bugs in the source code, which can affect the functionality or performance of the application. Static code analysis is a process of analyzing the source code without executing it, to identify any vulnerabilities, flaws, or coding standards violations. These techniques are not related to the use of regular expressions to remove special characters from the input.
References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 375-376; Professor Messer's CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, video 4.1 - Vulnerability Scanning, 8:00 - 9:08; Application Security - SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 3.2, 0:00 - 2:00.
NEW QUESTION # 314
A security analyst needs to improve the company's authentication policy following a password audit. Which of the following should be included in the policy? (Select two).
- A. Something you have
- B. Security keys
- C. Length
- D. Biometrics
- E. Least privilege
- F. Complexity
Answer: C,F
Explanation:
A strong authentication policy should enforcepassword length(e.g., minimum of 12-16 characters) andcomplexity(mix of uppercase, lowercase, numbers, and symbols). These measures significantlyreduce the risk of brute-force attacks.
Least privilege (C)relates to access control, not authentication policies.
Something you have (D)andbiometrics (F)pertain to multi-factor authentication (MFA) but are not password policy requirements.
Reference:CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Official Study Guide, General Security Concepts domain.
NEW QUESTION # 315
Which of the following best describes the risk present after controls and mitigating factors have been applied?
- A. Residual
- B. Operational
- C. Avoided
- D. Inherent
Answer: A
Explanation:
This is the risk that remains after controls and mitigation efforts have been applied.
NEW QUESTION # 316
Which of the following incident response activities ensures evidence is properly handied?
- A. Chain of custody
- B. Preservation
- C. E-discovery
- D. Legal hold
Answer: A
Explanation:
Chain of custody is the process of documenting and preserving the integrity of evidence collected during an incident response. It involves recording the details of each person who handled the evidence, the time and date of each transfer, and the location where the evidence was stored.
Chain of custody ensures that the evidence is admissible in legal proceedings and can be traced back to its source. E-discovery, legal hold, and preservation are related concepts, but they do not ensure evidence is properly handled.
NEW QUESTION # 317
A systems administrator is redesigning now devices will perform network authentication. The following requirements need to be met:
* An existing Internal certificate must be used.
* Wired and wireless networks must be supported
* Any unapproved device should be Isolated in a quarantine subnet
* Approved devices should be updated before accessing resources
Which of the following would best meet the requirements?
- A. 802.IX
- B. RADIUS
- C. EAP
- D. WPA2
Answer: A
Explanation:
802.1X is a network access control protocol that provides an authentication mechanism to devices trying to connect to a LAN or WLAN. It supports the use of certificates for authentication, can quarantine unapproved devices, and ensures that only approved and updated devices can access network resources. This protocol best meets the requirements of securing both wired and wireless networks with internal certificates.
Reference = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly in the domain of network security and authentication protocols.
NEW QUESTION # 318
A technician is opening ports on a firewall for a new system being deployed and supported by a SaaS provider.
Which of the following is a risk in the new system?
- A. Supply chain vendor
- B. Non-segmented network
- C. Vulnerable software
- D. Default credentials
Answer: A
Explanation:
A supply chain vendor is a third-party entity that provides goods or services to an organization, such as a SaaS provider. A supply chain vendor can pose a risk to the new system if the vendor has poor security practices, breaches, or compromises that could affect the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of the system or its data. The organization should perform due diligence and establish a service level agreement with the vendor to mitigate this risk. The other options are not specific to the scenario of using a SaaS provider, but rather general risks that could apply to any system.
NEW QUESTION # 319
A security analyst is prioritizing vulnerability scan results using a risk-based approach. Which of the following is the most efficient resource for the analyst to use?
- A. Business impact analysis
- B. Exposure factor
- C. Risk register
- D. Common Vulnerability Scoring System
Answer: D
Explanation:
TheCommon Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS)is astandardized framework for assessing the severity of vulnerabilities. It provides a numerical score (0-10) based on factors such asexploitability, impact, and complexity, helping security analystsprioritize remediation efforts based on risk.
Business impact analysis (A)helps identifycritical business functionsbut does not specificallyprioritize vulnerabilities.
Risk register (C)tracks identified risks but does not classify vulnerabilities.
Exposure factor (D)is used inquantitative risk assessmentbut is not an industry standard for vulnerability prioritization.
Reference:CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Official Study Guide, Risk Management domain.
NEW QUESTION # 320
Which of the following strategies should an organization use to efficiently manage and analyze multiple types of logs?
- A. Implement EDR technology
- B. Create custom scripts to aggregate and analyze logs
- C. Deploy a SIEM solution
- D. Install a unified threat management appliance
Answer: C
Explanation:
Deploying a Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) solution allows for efficient log aggregation, correlation, and analysis across an organization's infrastructure, providing real-time security insights.
NEW QUESTION # 321
An employee used a company's billing system to issue fraudulent checks. The administrator is looking for evidence of other occurrences of this activity. Which of the following should the administrator examine?
- A. Application logs
- B. IDS/IPS logs
- C. Vulnerability scanner logs
- D. Firewall logs
Answer: A
Explanation:
Application logs contain detailed information about the operations of specific applications, such as the billing system in question. These logs can provide records of user activities, system events, transactions, and other relevant information related to the fraudulent issuance of checks.
NEW QUESTION # 322
The application development teams have been asked to answer the following questions:
* Does this application receive patches from an external source?
* Does this application contain open-source code?
* is this application accessible by external users?
* Does this application meet the corporate password standard?
Which of the following are these questions port of?
- A. Risk matrix
- B. Risk management strategy
- C. Risk acceptance
- D. Risk control self-assessment
Answer: D
Explanation:
A Risk Control Self-Assessment (RCSA) is a process where business units, such as application development teams, evaluate their own risks and controls. The questions provided focus on identifying and assessing potential risks associated with the application, such as:
* External patches: Identifies risks from third-party sources.
* Open-source code: Assesses the presence of potentially unvetted or vulnerable components.
* External accessibility: Evaluates exposure to external threats.
* Password standards: Ensures compliance with corporate security policies.
These questions directly align with a self-assessment of risks and the effectiveness of controls in place.
* B. Risk management strategy: This refers to an overarching plan for identifying, assessing, and mitigating risks, not the process of asking specific operational questions.
* C. Risk acceptance: This is a decision to accept identified risks rather than mitigate them; it does not involve assessing controls.
* D. Risk matrix: A tool used to evaluate and prioritize risks, not a process for asking detailed application- specific questions.
Why not the other options?
NEW QUESTION # 323
While updating the security awareness training, a security analyst wants to address issues created if vendors' email accounts are compromised. Which of the following recommendations should the security analyst include in the training?
- A. Delete emails from unknown service provider partners.
- B. Refrain from clicking on images included in emails from new vendors
- C. Require that invoices be sent as attachments
- D. Be alert to unexpected requests from familiar email addresses
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 324
A newly appointed board member with cybersecurity knowledge wants the board of directors to receive a quarterly report detailing the number of incidents that impacted the organization. The systems administrator is creating a way to present the data to the board of directors. Which of the following should the systems administrator use?
- A. Packet captures
- B. Dashboard
- C. Vulnerability scans
- D. Metadata
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
A dashboard is a graphical user interface that provides a visual representation of key performance indicators, metrics, and trends related to security events and incidents. A dashboard can help the board of directors to understand the number and impact of incidents that affected the organization in a given period, as well as the status and effectiveness of the security controls and processes. A dashboard can also allow the board of directors to drill down into specific details or filter the data by various criteria12.
A packet capture is a method of capturing and analyzing the network traffic that passes through a device or a network segment. A packet capture can provide detailed information about the source, destination, protocol, and content of each packet, but it is not a suitable way to present a summary of incidents to the board of directors13.
A vulnerability scan is a process of identifying and assessing the weaknesses and exposures in a system or a network that could be exploited by attackers. A vulnerability scan can help the organization to prioritize and remediate the risks and improve the security posture, but it is not a relevant way to report the number of incidents that occurred in a quarter14.
Metadata is data that describes other data, such as its format, origin, structure, or context. Metadata can provide useful information about the characteristics and properties of data, but it is not a meaningful way to communicate the impact and frequency of incidents to the board of directors. References = 1: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 3722: SIEM Dashboards - SY0-601 CompTIA Security+: 4.3, video by Professor Messer3: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 3464:
CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 362. : CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 97.
NEW QUESTION # 325
Which of the following best describe the benefits of a microservices architecture when compared to a monolithic architecture? (Choose two.)
- A. Increased compartmentalization of the system
- B. Reduced cost of ownership of the system
- C. Reduced complexity of the system
- D. Easier debugging of the system
- E. Improved scalability of the system
- F. Stronger authentication of the system
Answer: A,E
NEW QUESTION # 326
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