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Symantec 250-561 (Endpoint Security Complete - Administration R1) Certification Exam is designed to certify the knowledge and skills of IT professionals in administering endpoint security solutions. Endpoint Security Complete - Administration R1 certification exam covers a variety of topics related to endpoint security, including threat prevention, incident response, and advanced threat protection.
NEW QUESTION # 28
Which two (2) scan range options are available to an administrator for locating unmanaged endpoints? (Select two)
- A. IP range within subnet
- B. Subnet Range
- C. Entire Subnet
- D. Entire Network
- E. IP range within network
Answer: B,E
NEW QUESTION # 29
Which policy should an administrator edit to utilize the Symantec LiveUpdate server for pre-release content?
- A. The System Policy
- B. The Firewall Policy
- C. The System Schedule Policy
- D. The LiveUpdate Policy
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 30
What is the primary issue pertaining to managing roaming users while utilizing an on-premise solution?
- A. The endpoint fails to receive content update
- B. The endpoint is absent of the management console
- C. The endpoint is missing timely policy update
- D. The endpoint is more exposed to threats
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 31
Which communication method is utilized within SES to achieve real-time management?
- A. Long polling
- B. Standard polling
- C. Heartbeat
- D. Push Notification
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 32
Files are blocked by hash in the blacklist policy.
Which algorithm is supported, in addition to MD5?
- A. SHA256 "salted"
- B. SHA256
- C. SHA2
- D. MD5 "Salted"
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 33
An endpoint fails to retrieve content updates.
Which URL should an administrator test in a browser to determine if the issue is network related?
- A. https://spocsymantec.com/livetri.zip
- B. https://update.symantec.com/livetri.zip
- C. https://liveupdate.symantec,com/livetri.zi
- D. http://update.symantec.com/livetri.zip
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 34
Which two (2) skill areas are critical to the success of incident Response Teams (Select two)
- A. Threat Analysis
- B. Project Management
- C. Incident Response
- D. Incident Management
- E. Cyber Intelligence
Answer: C,E
NEW QUESTION # 35
Which antimalware intensity level is defined by the following: "Blocks files that are most certainly bad or potentially bad files. Results in a comparable number of false positives and false negatives."
- A. Level 6
- B. Level 1
- C. Level 2
- D. Level 5
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 36
An administrator selects the Discovered Items list in the ICDm to investigate a recent surge in suspicious file activity. What should an administrator do to display only high risk files?
- A. Apply a list filter
- B. Apply a search modifier
- C. Apply a search rule
- D. Apply a list control
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 37
A user downloads and opens a PDF file with Adobe Acrobat. Unknown to the user, a hidden script in the file begins downloading a RAT.
Which Anti-malware engine recognizes that this behavior is inconsistent with normal Acrobat functionality, blocks the behavior and kills Acrobat?
- A. Sapient
- B. IPS
- C. SONAR
- D. Emulator
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 38
Which alert rule category includes events that are generated about the cloud console?
- A. Security
- B. System
- C. Diagnostic
- D. Application Activity
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 39
Which Security Control dashboard widget should an administrator utilize to access detailed areas for a given security control ?
- A. More Info
- B. Quick Links
- C. Learn More
- D. Latest Tasks
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 40
Why would an administrator choose the Server-optimized installation option when creating an installation package?
- A. To reduce the SES client's using resources that are required for other server-specific processes.
- B. To add the SES client's Optimize Memory setting to the default server installation.
- C. To add the Server-optimized Firewall policy
- D. To limit the Intrusion Prevention policy to use server-only signatures.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 41
Which term or expression is utilized when adversaries leverage existing tools in the environment?
- A. opportunistic attack
- B. living off the land
- C. script kiddies
- D. file-less attack
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 42
Which Symantec component is required to enable two factor authentication with VIP on the Integrated Cyber Defense manager (ICDm)?
- A. A physical token or a software token
- B. A physical token or a secure USB key
- C. A software token and an active directory account
- D. A software token and a VIP server
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 43
Which two (2) Discovery and Deploy features could an administrator use to enroll MAC endpoints? (Select two)
- A. A custom Installation package creator pact
- B. A default Direct Installation package
- C. Push Enroll
- D. A custom Direct installation package
- E. Invite User
Answer: A,D
NEW QUESTION # 44
An endpoint is offline, and the administrator issues a scan command. What happens to the endpoint when it restarts, if it lacks connectivity?
- A. The system scans after the content update is downloaded.
- B. The system starts without scanning.
- C. The system is scanning when started.
- D. The system downloads the content without scanning.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 45
What characterizes an emerging threat in comparison to traditional threat?
- A. Emerging threats are undetectable by signature based engines.
- B. Emerging threats are more sophisticated than traditional threats.
- C. Emerging threats requires artificial intelligence to be detected.
- D. Emerging threats use new techniques and 0-day vulnerability to propagate.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 46
Which URL is responsible for notifying the SES agent that a policy change occurred in the cloud console?
- A. ocsp.digicert.com
- B. spoc.norton.com
- C. stnd-ipsg.crsi-symantec.com
- D. ent-shasta.rrs-symantec.com
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 47
Which report template type should an administrator utilize to create a daily summary of network threats detected?
- A. Access Violation Report
- B. Intrusion Prevention Report
- C. Network Risk Report
- D. Blocked Threats Report
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 48
What are the Exploit Mitigation security control's mitigation techniques designed to prevent?
- A. Misbehaving applications
- B. Rootkit downloads
- C. File-less attacks
- D. Packed file execution
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 49
Which IPS Signature type is Primarily used to identify specific unwanted traffic?
- A. Probe
- B. Audit
- C. Malcode
- D. Attack
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 50
What happens when an administrator blacklists a file?
- A. The file is automatically quarantined
- B. The file is assigned to the default Blacklist policy
- C. The file is assigned to the Blacklist task list
- D. The file is assigned to a chosen Blacklist policy
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 51
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