Free Jul-2026 UPDATED ECCouncil 312-85 Certification Exam Dumps is Online
ECCouncil Exam 2026 312-85 Dumps Updated Questions
NEW QUESTION # 46
Alison, an analyst in an XYZ organization, wants to retrieve information about a company's website from the time of its inception as well as the removed information from the target website.
What should Alison do to get the information he needs.
- A. Alison should use SmartWhois to extract the required website information.
- B. Alison should run the Web Data Extractor tool to extract the required website information.
- C. Alison should use https://archive.org to extract the required website information.
- D. Alison should recover cached pages of the website from the Google search engine cache to extract the required website information.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 47
Enrage Tech Company hired Enrique, a security analyst, for performing threat intelligence analysis. While performing data collection process, he used a counterintelligence mechanism where a recursive DNS server is employed to perform interserver DNS communication and when a request is generated from any name server to the recursive DNS server, the recursive DNS servers log the responses that are received. Then it replicates the logged data and stores the data in the central database. Using these logs, he analyzed the malicious attempts that took place over DNS infrastructure.
Which of the following cyber counterintelligence (CCI) gathering technique has Enrique used for data collection?
- A. Data collection through passive DNS monitoring
- B. Data collection through DNS zone transfer
- C. Data collection through dynamic DNS (DDNS)
- D. Data collection through DNS interrogation
Answer: A
Explanation:
Passive DNS monitoring involves collecting data about DNS queries and responses without actively querying DNS servers, thereby not altering or interfering with DNS traffic. This technique allows analysts to track changes in DNS records and observe patterns that may indicate malicious activity. In the scenario described, Enrique is employing passive DNS monitoring by using a recursive DNS server to log the responses received from name servers, storing these logs in a central database for analysis. This approach is effective for identifying malicious domains, mapping malware campaigns, and understanding threat actors' infrastructure without alerting them to the fact that they are being monitored. This method is distinct from active techniques such as DNS interrogation or zone transfers, which involve sending queries to DNS servers, and dynamic DNS, which refers to the automatic updating of DNS records.References:
* SANS Institute InfoSec Reading Room, "Using Passive DNS to Enhance Cyber Threat Intelligence"
* "Passive DNS Replication," by Florian Weimer, FIRST Conference Presentation
NEW QUESTION # 48
A threat analyst wants to incorporate a requirement in the threat knowledge repository that provides an ability to modify or delete past or irrelevant threat data.
Which of the following requirement must he include in the threat knowledge repository to fulfil his needs?
- A. Evaluating performance
- B. Searchable functionality
- C. Data management
- D. Protection ranking
Answer: C
Explanation:
Incorporating a data management requirement in the threat knowledge repository is essential to provide the ability to modify or delete past or irrelevant threat data. Effective data management practices ensure that the repository remains accurate, relevant, and up-to-date by allowing for the adjustment and curation of stored information. This includes removing outdated intelligence, correcting inaccuracies, and updating information as new insights become available. A well-managed repository supports the ongoing relevance and utility of the threat intelligence, aiding in informed decision-making and threat mitigation strategies.
References:
"Building and Maintaining a Threat Intelligence Library," by Recorded Future
"Best Practices for Creating a Threat Intelligence Policy, and How to Use It," by SANS Institute
NEW QUESTION # 49
Moses, a threat intelligence analyst at InfoTec Inc., wants to find crucial information about the potential threats the organization is facing by using advanced Google search operators. He wants to identify whether any fake websites are hosted at the similar to the organization's URL.
Which of the following Google search queries should Moses use?
- A. link: www.infothech.org
- B. info: www.infothech.org
- C. cache: www.infothech.org
- D. related: www.infothech.org
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 50
Steve works as an analyst in a UK-based firm. He was asked to perform network monitoring to find any evidence of compromise. During the network monitoring, he came to know that there are multiple logins from different locations in a short time span. Moreover, he also observed certain irregular log in patterns from locations where the organization does not have business relations. This resembles that somebody is trying to steal confidential information.
Which of the following key indicators of compromise does this scenario present?
- A. Geographical anomalies
- B. Unexpected patching of systems
- C. Unusual outbound network traffic
- D. Unusual activity through privileged user account
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 51
Tyrion, a professional hacker, is targeting an organization to steal confidential information. He wants to perform website footprinting to obtain the following information, which is hidden in the web page header.
Connection status and content type
Accept-ranges and last-modified information
X-powered-by information
Web server in use and its version
Which of the following tools should the Tyrion use to view header content?
- A. AutoShun
- B. Burp suite
- C. Vanguard enforcer
- D. Hydra
Answer: B
Explanation:
Burp Suite is a comprehensive tool used for web application security testing, which includes functionality for viewing and manipulating the HTTP/HTTPS headers of web page requests and responses. This makes it an ideal tool for someone like Tyrion, who is looking to perform website footprinting to gather information hidden in the web page header, such as connection status, content type, server information, and other metadata that can reveal details about the web server and its configuration. Burp Suite allows users to intercept, analyze, and modify traffic between the browser and the web server, which is crucial for uncovering such hidden information.
References:
"Burp Suite Essentials" by Akash Mahajan
Official Burp Suite Documentation
NEW QUESTION # 52
In which of the following storage architecture is the data stored in a localized system, server, or storage hardware and capable of storing a limited amount of data in its database and locally available for data usage?
- A. Cloud storage
- B. Object-based storage
- C. Distributed storage
- D. Centralized storage
Answer: D
Explanation:
Centralized storage architecture refers to a system where data is stored in a localized system, server, or storage hardware. This type of storage is capable of holding a limited amount of data in its database and is locally available for data usage. Centralized storage is commonly used in smaller organizations or specific departments within larger organizations where the volume of data is manageable and does not require the scalability offered by distributed or cloud storage solutions. Centralized storage systems simplify data management and access but might present challenges in terms of scalabilityand data recovery.References:
* "Data Storage Solutions for Your Business: Centralized vs. Decentralized," Techopedia
* "The Basics of Centralized Data Storage," by Margaret Rouse, SearchStorage
NEW QUESTION # 53
A threat analyst obtains an intelligence related to a threat, where the data is sent in the form of a connection request from a remote host to the server. From this data, he obtains only the IP address of the source and destination but no contextual information. While processing this data, he obtains contextual information stating that multiple connection requests from different geo-locations are received by the server within a short time span, and as a result, the server is stressed and gradually its performance has reduced. He further performed analysis on the information based on the past and present experience and concludes the attack experienced by the client organization.
Which of the following attacks is performed on the client organization?
- A. MAC spoofing attack
- B. DHCP attacks
- C. Bandwidth attack
- D. Distributed Denial-of-Service (DDoS) attack
Answer: D
Explanation:
The attack described, where multiple connection requests from different geo-locations are received by a server within a short time span leading to stress and reduced performance, is indicative of a Distributed Denial-of-Service (DDoS) attack. In a DDoS attack, the attacker floods the target's resources (such as a server) with excessive requests from multiple sources, making it difficult for the server to handle legitimate traffic, leading to degradation or outright unavailability of service. The use of multiple geo-locations for the attack sources is a common characteristic of DDoS attacks, making them harder to mitigate.References:
* "Understanding Denial-of-Service Attacks," US-CERT
* "DDoS Quick Guide," DHS/NCCIC
NEW QUESTION # 54
Steve works as an analyst in a UK-based firm. He was asked to perform network monitoring to find any evidence of compromise. During the network monitoring, he came to know that there are multiple logins from different locations in a short time span. Moreover, he also observed certain irregular log in patterns from locations where the organization does not have business relations. This resembles that somebody is trying to steal confidential information.
Which of the following key indicators of compromise does this scenario present?
- A. Unexpected patching of systems
- B. Unusual activity through privileged user account
- C. Geographical anomalies
- D. Unusual outbound network traffic
Answer: C
Explanation:
The scenario described by Steve's observations, where multiple logins are occurring from different locations in a short time span, especially from locations where the organization has no business relations, points to
'Geographical anomalies' as a key indicator of compromise (IoC). Geographical anomalies in logins suggest unauthorized access attempts potentially made by attackers using compromised credentials. This is particularly suspicious when the locations of these logins do not align with the normal geographical footprint of the organization's operations or employee locations. Monitoring for such anomalies can help in the early detection of unauthorized access and potential data breaches.References:
* SANS Institute Reading Room, "Indicators of Compromise: Reality's Version of the Minority Report"
* "Identifying Indicators of Compromise" by CERT-UK
NEW QUESTION # 55
Sarah is a security operations center (SOC) analyst working at JW Williams and Sons organization based in Chicago. As a part of security operations, she contacts information providers (sharing partners) for gathering information such as collections of validated and prioritized threat indicators along with a detailed technical analysis of malware samples, botnets, DDoS attack methods, and various other malicious tools. She further used the collected information at the tactical and operational levels.
Sarah obtained the required information from which of the following types of sharing partner?
- A. Providers of threat data feeds
- B. Providers of threat actors
- C. Providers of comprehensive cyber-threat intelligence
- D. Providers of threat indicators
Answer: C
Explanation:
The information Sarah is gathering, which includes collections of validated and prioritized threat indicators along with detailed technical analysis of malware samples, botnets, DDoS methods, and other malicious tools, indicates that she is obtaining this intelligence from providers of comprehensive cyber-threat intelligence.
These providers offer a holistic view of the threat landscape, combining tactical and operational threat data with in-depth analysis and context, enabling security teams to make informed decisions and strategically enhance their defenses.References:
* "Cyber Threat Intelligence Providers: How to Choose the Right One for Your Organization," by CrowdStrike
* "The Role of Comprehensive Cyber Threat Intelligence in Effective Cybersecurity Strategies," by FireEye
NEW QUESTION # 56
Mr. Bob, a threat analyst, is performing analysis of competing hypotheses (ACH). He has reached to a stage where he is required to apply his analysis skills effectively to reject as many hypotheses and select the best hypotheses from the identified bunch of hypotheses, and this is done with the help of listed evidence. Then, he prepares a matrix where all the screened hypotheses are placed on the top, and the listed evidence for the hypotheses are placed at the bottom.
What stage of ACH is Bob currently in?
- A. Diagnostics
- B. Inconsistency
- C. Refinement
- D. Evidence
Answer: C
Explanation:
In the Analysis of Competing Hypotheses (ACH) process, the stage where Mr. Bob is applying analysis to reject hypotheses and select the most likely one based on listed evidence, followed by preparing a matrix with screened hypotheses and evidence, is known as the 'Refinement' stage. This stage involves refining the list of hypotheses by systematically evaluating the evidence against each hypothesis, leading to the rejection of inconsistent hypotheses and the strengthening of the most plausible ones. The preparation of a matrix helps visualize the relationship between each hypothesis and the available evidence, facilitating a more objective and structured analysis.References:
* "Psychology of Intelligence Analysis" by Richards J. Heuer, Jr., for the CIA's Center for the Study of Intelligence
* "A Tradecraft Primer: Structured Analytic Techniques for Improving Intelligence Analysis" by the CIA
NEW QUESTION # 57
Which of the following types of threat attribution deals with the identification of the specific person, society, or a country sponsoring a well-planned and executed intrusion or attack over its target?
- A. Intrusion-set attribution
- B. True attribution
- C. Campaign attribution
- D. Nation-state attribution
Answer: B
Explanation:
True attribution in the context of cyber threats involves identifying the actual individual, group, or nation- state behind an attack or intrusion. This type of attribution goes beyond associating an attack with certain tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) or a known group and aims to pinpoint the real-world entity responsible. True attribution is challenging due to the anonymity of the internet and the use of obfuscation techniques by attackers, but it is crucial for understanding the motive behind an attack and for forming appropriate responses at diplomatic, law enforcement, or cybersecurity levels.
References:
"Attribution of Cyber Attacks: A Framework for an Evidence-Based Analysis" by Jason Healey
"The Challenges of Attribution in Cyberspace" in the Journal of Cyber Policy
NEW QUESTION # 58
CalSoft is a large-scale organization that wants to establish a certain level of trust before sharing intelligence within the organization. As various departments in the organization share information frequently, they decided to use different trust models for different departments. In addition, the organization acts as a provider of threat intelligence to all connected members and organizations.
Which of the following organizational trust models should be used by CalSoft?
- A. Validated trust
- B. Mediated trust
- C. Hybrid trust
- D. Mandated trust
Answer: C
Explanation:
The scenario indicates that CalSoft:
* Uses different trust models across departments, and
* Acts as a provider of threat intelligence to other entities.
This setup aligns with a Hybrid Trust Model.
Hybrid Trust Model combines two or more trust mechanisms (validated, mediated, or mandated) depending on departmental or organizational needs. It allows flexibility in establishing trust relationships while maintaining control and oversight across varied entities.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
* Validated trust: Based on evidence or documentation provided by one party; does not describe a multi- model system.
* Mediated trust: Relies on a third party (mediator) to establish trust; CalSoft acts as the provider itself, not a mediator.
* Mandated trust: Enforced by authority or policy; does not allow departmental flexibility.
Conclusion:
CalSoft should adopt a Hybrid Trust Model to accommodate different departmental requirements and function as a provider of intelligence.
Final Answer: D. Hybrid trust
Explanation Reference (Based on CTIA Study Concepts):
CTIA defines the hybrid model as a combination of multiple trust establishment methods used to support diverse organizational and interdepartmental sharing needs.
NEW QUESTION # 59
Sam works as an analyst in an organization named InfoTech Security. He was asked to collect information from various threat intelligence sources. In meeting the deadline, he forgot to verify the threat intelligence sources and used data from an open-source data provider, who offered it at a very low cost. Through it was beneficial at the initial stage but relying on such data providers can produce unreliable data and noise putting the organization network into risk.
What mistake Sam did that led to this situation?
- A. Sam used data without context.
- B. Sam did not use the proper technology to use or consume the information.
- C. Sam used unreliable intelligence sources.
- D. Sam did not use the proper standardization formats for representing threat data.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 60
An analyst wants to disseminate the information effectively so that the consumers can acquire and benefit out of the intelligence.
Which of the following criteria must an analyst consider in order to make the intelligence concise, to the point, accurate, and easily understandable and must consist of a right balance between tables, narrative, numbers, graphics, and multimedia?
- A. The right time
- B. The right content
- C. The right order
- D. The right presentation
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 61
ABC is a well-established cyber-security company in the United States. The organization implemented the automation of tasks such as data enrichment and indicator aggregation. They also joined various communities to increase their knowledge about the emerging threats. However, the security teams can only detect and prevent identified threats in a reactive approach.
Based on threat intelligence maturity model, identify the level of ABC to know the stage at which the organization stands with its security and vulnerabilities.
- A. Level 1: preparing for CTI
- B. Level 2: increasing CTI capabilities
- C. Level 0: vague where to start
- D. Level 3: CTI program in place
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 62
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The Certified Threat Intelligence Analyst (CTIA) certification exam offered by the ECCouncil is a highly sought-after certification in the field of cybersecurity. Certified Threat Intelligence Analyst certification is designed to equip cybersecurity professionals with the necessary skills and knowledge to identify and mitigate potential threats to an organization's digital assets. The CTIA certification exam tests the candidate's ability to analyze and interpret threat data, as well as their proficiency in using various intelligence tools to gather and analyze data.
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