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CSI AFP-Exam-1 Exam Syllabus Topics:
| Section | Weight | Objectives |
|---|---|---|
| Enabling Competencies | 16% | - Client Relationship and Practice Management - Professional Conduct and Regulatory Compliance |
| Technical Competencies | 84% | - Risk Management and Insurance - Tax Planning - Retirement Planning - Asset and Liability Management - Estate Planning - Investment Planning |
CSI Applied Financial Planning Certification Exam 1 (AFP) Sample Questions:
A client, age 60, is in a low tax bracket today and expects a larger taxable pension after age 65. She has TFSA and RRSP room. Which contribution priority is generally more appropriate?
- A. TFSA, because withdrawals will not increase taxable retirement income.
- B. RRSP, because withdrawals are tax-free.
- C. Non-registered account only, because registered accounts are unsuitable after age 60.
- D. RRSP only after the client turns 72.
Correct Answer: A 🗳️
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A planner establishes a long-term target portfolio of 65% equities and 35% fixed income based on the client's objectives and constraints, with periodic rebalancing. Which allocation approach is being used?
- A. Strategic asset allocation.
- B. Tactical asset allocation.
- C. Market timing.
- D. Speculative allocation.
Correct Answer: A 🗳️
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Evan meets with his financial planner to review his concerns around inflation and its impact on his TFSA investment portfolio. His financial planner researches the current holdings and recommends that he sells one of the portfolio's equity funds. Which replacement option should the financial planner recommend to Evan?
- A. Guaranteed investment certificates.
- B. Real estate investment trusts.
- C. Gold bullion.
- D. Treasury bills.
Correct Answer: B 🗳️
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Alexander and Irena, age 30 and 32 respectively, are married and have been working full-time for one year.
They have a daughter, age 3, and are expecting their second child. They recently bought a home with a mortgage balance of $390,000 at 4% amortized over 25 years. Their financial planner is trying to determine their tolerance for risk. After completing the life-cycle analysis, how can their financial planner explain the stage in which the couple finds themselves and the risk tolerance associated with it?
- A. They are at the gifting stage where their tolerance of risk is low.
- B. They are at the accumulation stage where they can tolerate a high level of risk.
- C. They are at the consolidation stage where they can tolerate moderate to high level of risk.
- D. They are at the financial independence stage where their tolerance of risk is low.
Correct Answer: B 🗳️
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In which life cycle stage would a financial planner identify his client to be if they have a high mortgage balance and an unstable or lower income, and are willing to take on investment risk because of their longer time horizon?
- A. Financial independence.
- B. Gifting.
- C. Consolidation.
- D. Accumulation.
Correct Answer: D 🗳️
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